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2 Comments

  1. Don Stults September 1, 2015
    Reply

    Do you think that the change in Greek is Mark’s attempt to be accurate to the history, or is it some sort of mood shift in an oral presentation, or is it some sort of plea for mission work?

  2. William A. Ferguson May 4, 2016
    Reply

    I am so very sorry for these “privacy restrictions.” Dr. Voelz is worth hearing/seeing under any circumstance whatever. I am sorry that I cannot participate any longer. I don’t have the luxury of time to engage in any matter that places restrictions on me. I commend you to the grace and care of God. Amen.

  3. Jim Voelz May 4, 2016
    Reply

    Sorry I missed this. I think that it is a mood shift of sorts, with the Greek reflecting the surroundings/context of the story. Thus, when Jesus is in the villages in Galilee, the Greek is more Semitic. When he starts getting to the center of things in Jerusalem, which had plenty of Greco-Roman influences, especially with the priests, then the Greek becomes more Hellenic, i.e., “Greekier.” It’s not as obvious as the moves Luke makes in his Gospel and Acts. The Greek in the description of Paul in Athens, e.g., is some of the most “classical” Greek in the NT.

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